Thank you everyone. The biopsy came back as an inflamed seborrheic keratosis which is benign. I am wondering if I should get a second opinion or if the pathology is so obvious that it is not necessary. How easy is it to misdiagnose a melanoma as a keratosis? The pathology report stated:
Specimen A: Shave, Posterior right proximal thigh
Diagnosis: SEBORRHEIC KERATOSIS, INFLAMED
Specimen Comment: Margins not applicable in this case
Clinical Information: Check margins, BCCA
Gross Description: Received in 10% neutral buffered formalin is a segment of tissue measuring 0.6 x 0.3 x 0.1 cm. The specimen is bisected and submitted entirely in one cassette.
Microscopic Description: A proliferation of Infundibular and epidermal keratinocytes shows Infundibular cystic structures and hyperkeratosis. There is an associated inflammatory Infiltrate. No atypia is present.
What does that mean exactly…and does the BCCA in clinicial mean the doctor thought it was a basal cell?
