First melanoma occurance (left shoulder) was in 2009, second was in September 2013. I am currently classified as T2a NO MO. I've had several lesions removed, but the most recent biopsy results have me confused…. if anyone can break these down for me, I'd appreciate it. 🙂
First Results:
LEFT LOWER LEG-SHAVE BIOPSY:
Lentiginous junctional nevus with mild cytologic atypia, approximating lateral margin. (See Narrative)
Narrative: The biopsy specimen is significant for an asymmetric proliferation of mildly atypical appearing melanocytes along the dermal-epidermal junction. These melanocytes are arranged in nests and also proliferate as single cells at the tips and sides of the rete ridges with associated papillary dermal fibroplasia.
Second Results:
LEFT UPPER LEG-SHAVE BIOPSY:
Junctional letiginous nevus with architectural disorder and focally moderate cytologic atypia present at one transverse margin. (See Narrative)
Narrative: There is letiginous downgrowth of the epidermis populated by single melanocytes and some melanocytic nests at the dermal-epidermal junction and in the dermis. The melanocytes reside mainly at the sides and tips of the rete ridges with sparing of the suprapapillary plates. Bridging of melanocytic nests is identified. No confluence of melanocytes at the juction or pagetoid spread is noted. The melanocytes exhibit focally moderate cytologic atypia with nuclear enlargement, hyperchromtc and agulated nuclei and prominent nucleoli. Beneath the epidermis is a zone of concentric dermal fibroplasia. No dermal component is identified. The lesion is present at one transverse margin, and recurrence is possible.
Help?
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